RRB Group D Cut Off Score 2018: Government of India, Ministry of Railways, Railway Recruitment Boards has advertised the RRB Group D notification for the recruitment of 62907 Group ‘D’ vacancies. RRB Group D Cut Off Score for the year 2018 in CBT examination will make a candidate’s success in the final merit list. RRB Group D Cut Off Marks are the Minimum Marks that all the aspirants must and should secure in the Group D examination. The Railway Recruitment Board arranged the Cut Off Marks in category wise. RRB Group D Cut Off 2018 depends upon many of factors. RRB Group D Cut Off to be decided by railway recruitment board based on aspirants performance in the examination. For more information regarding RRB Group D 2018 Cut Off score, are given below.
Showing posts with label CUT OFF. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CUT OFF. Show all posts
Thursday, 27 September 2018
Monday, 21 May 2018
JEE Main Cutoff 2018- Analysis by allsarkariexam
allsarkariexam
JEE Main Cutoff 2018 – With the result announcement of JEE Main on April 30, JAB has announced the qualifying cutoff of JEE Main for JEE Advanced 2018. Apart from the qualifying cutoff for JEE Advanced 2018, JAB has also released JEE Main 2018 cutoff for admission to National Institutes of Technology (NITs), Indian Institutes of Information Technology (IIITs) and Government Funded Technical Institutes (GFTIs). The JEE Main cutoff 2018 is the closing rank at which admission to a particular B.Tech programme at a particular institute is closed. This means that candidates having a lower rank than JEE Main 2018 cutoff (for a particular course/institute) will not be considered for admission. In other words, candidates have to secure a rank or JEE Maincutoff 2018 which is above the closing rank. It must be noted that the cutoff of JEE Main 2018 is available category-wise, institution-wise and branch-wise and it varies from candidate to candidate as per the institution/programme/category. To check complete details about JEE Main cutoff 2018, go through the tables below.
JEE Main Cutoff 2018 – With the result announcement of JEE Main on April 30, JAB has announced the qualifying cutoff of JEE Main for JEE Advanced 2018. Apart from the qualifying cutoff for JEE Advanced 2018, JAB has also released JEE Main 2018 cutoff for admission to National Institutes of Technology (NITs), Indian Institutes of Information Technology (IIITs) and Government Funded Technical Institutes (GFTIs). The JEE Main cutoff 2018 is the closing rank at which admission to a particular B.Tech programme at a particular institute is closed. This means that candidates having a lower rank than JEE Main 2018 cutoff (for a particular course/institute) will not be considered for admission. In other words, candidates have to secure a rank or JEE Maincutoff 2018 which is above the closing rank. It must be noted that the cutoff of JEE Main 2018 is available category-wise, institution-wise and branch-wise and it varies from candidate to candidate as per the institution/programme/category. To check complete details about JEE Main cutoff 2018, go through the tables below.
JEE Main 2018 Qualifying Cutoff
Category
|
Qualified
|
Max Marks
|
Min Marks
|
Common Rank List
|
111275
|
350
|
74
|
OBC-NCL
|
65313
|
73
|
45
|
SC
|
34425
|
73
|
29
|
ST
|
17256
|
73
|
24
|
PwD
|
2755
|
73
|
-35
|
Total
|
231024
| ||
Determining Factors of JEE Main Cutoff 2018
- Number of applications received for JEE Main 2018
- Number of questions asked in the paper
- Difficulty level of the exam
- Performance of the candidates
- Previous years’ cutoff trends of JEE Main
JEE Main Cut off Trend Analysis
Looking at the table below, we can see that JEE Main cutoff has been witnessing a decline year after year since 2015. The cutoff of JEE Main 2017 is the lowest in the last five years. The steep fall in JEE Main cutoff is attributed the increase in number of qualifying candidates for appearing in JEE Advanced and the increasing difficulty level of the question papers of JEE Main over the years.
JEE Main 2018 Expected Cutoff by Coaching Institutes
S.No
|
Coaching Institute
|
JEE Main 2018 Paper I Expected Cutoff
|
1
|
Toppr
|
Between 95 - 105
|
2
|
BasicFirst
|
80 (+-5%)
|
3
|
Career Launcher
|
75-80
|
4
|
FIITJEE
|
Around 86
|
5
|
Sri Chaitanya
|
Open Category - >=80
OBC - >=45
SC - >=30
ST - >=25
|
6
|
Resonance
|
Open Category - 70
OBC - 38
SC - 28
ST - 25
|
7
|
Motion IIT
|
General - 82 - 90
OBC - 55 - 60
SC - 38 - 42
ST - 32 - 38
|
Statistics of JEE Main 2018 Paper I (April 8)
S.No
|
Particulars
|
Total Number
|
Division of Total Number
|
1
|
Total Number of Candidates
|
1043739
|
Boys – 646814
Girls – 266745
Transgender - 3
|
2
|
Total Number of Cities
|
112
|
India – 104
Abroad - 8
|
3
|
Total Number of Centres
|
1621
|
India – 1613
Abroad - 8
|
JEE Main Cut off Trends (2013-2017)
S.No.
|
Category
|
2017
|
2016
|
2015
|
2014
|
2013
|
1
|
General
|
81
|
100
|
105
|
115
|
113
|
2
|
OBC-NCL
|
49
|
70
|
70
|
74
|
70
|
3
|
SC
|
32
|
52
|
50
|
53
|
50
|
4
|
ST
|
27
|
48
|
44
|
47
|
45
|
Wednesday, 30 August 2017
Important English Questions for SSC CGL Tier-2 2017
Dear Students, English section of all SSC Exams is very challenging. You need to mug up all the grammar rules, vocabulary and practice a lot of mock tests to score maximum marks. Today, in this English quiz
we are providing questions based on Reading Comprehension, Antonyms and Jumbled Paragraph. Attempt this quiz, learn better and be prepared for the SSC CGL 2017 Exam.
Directions (1-4): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.
Male lions are rather reticent about expending their energy in hunting – more than three – quarters of kills are made by lionesses. Setting off at dusk on a hunt, the lionesses are in front, tensely scanning ahead, the cubs lag playfully behind and the males brings up the rear, walking slowly, their massive heads nodding with each step as if they were bored with the whole matter. But slothfulness may have survival value. With lionesses busy hunting, the males function as guards for the cubs, protecting them particularly from hyenas.
Q1. According to the passage male lions generally do not go for hunting because
(a) they do not like it
(b) they want lioness to get training
(c) they wish to save their vigour for other things
(d) they are very lazy
Q2. When lionesses go in search for their prey, they are very
(a) serious
(b) cautious
(c) playful
(d) sluggish
Q3. Male lions protect their cubs
(a) from the members for their own species
(b) from hyenas only
(c) from hyenas as much from other enemies
(d) more from hyenas than from other animals
Q4. Lionesses go for hunting
(a) all alone
(b) with their male partners only
(c) with their cubs and male partners
(d) with their cubs only
Directions (5-8): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.
Harold, a professional man who had worked in an office for many years, had a fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people’s bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then became the nation’s system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realized that he himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures his dream dramatized for Harold what he had never been able to put into words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the ‘security bug’ and took up freelance work.
Q5. The statement that ‘he later threw off the security bug’ means that
(a) Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security.
(b) Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams.
(c) Harold started tolerating social victimization.
(d) Harold killed all the bugs troubling him.
Q6. Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of ‘loathsome creatures’?
(a) security bug and slimy tentacles
(b) fearful dream and slug-like animals
(c) slimy tentacles and slug-like animals
(d) slug-like animals and security bug
Q7. In his dream, Harold found the loathsome creatures
(a) in his village
(b) in his own house
(c) in a different land
(d) in his office
Q8. Harold’s dream was fearful because
(a) It brought him face to face with reality
(b) It was full of vivid pictures of snakes
(c) He saw huge elephants in it
(d) In it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people’s bodies
Directions (9-13): Each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper order for four sentences.
Q9. S1- Our ancestors thought that anything which moved itself was alive.
S6- Therefore, some scientists think that life is just a very complicated mechanism.
P. The philosopher Descartes thought that both men and animals were machines.
Q. But a machine such as a motorcar or a steamship moves itself, and as soon as machines which moved themselves had been made, people asked, “Is man a machine?”
R. And before the days of machinery that was a good definition.
S. He also thought that the human machine was partly controlled by the soul action on a certain part of the brain, while animals had no souls.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PRSQ
(b) RPQS
(c) PSQR
(d) RQPS
Q10. S1- On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend and I sat down at a street café.
S6- Finally, a man walked over to me and whispered. “Hey buddy….. they guy’s your waiter and he wants your order.”
P. At one point, he bent over with a big smile, showing me a single good tooth and a dingy fez.
Q. Soon I felt the presence of someone standing alongside me.
R. But this one wouldn’t budge.
S. We had been cautioned about beggars and were told to ignore them.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SQRP
(b) SQPR
(c) QSRP
(d) QSPR
Q11. S1- The heart is the pump of life.
S6- All this was made possible by the invention of the heart-lung machine.
P. They have been succeeded in heart transplants.
Q. Now a day, surgeons are able to stop a patient’s heart and carry out complicated operation.
R. A few years ago it was impossible to operate on a patient whose heart was not working properly.
S. If the heart stops we die in about five minutes.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SRQP
(b) SPRQ
(c) SQPR
(d) SRPQ
Q12. S1- In 1934, William Golding published a small volume of poems.
S6- But ‘Lord of the Flies’ which came out in 1954 was welcomed as “a most absorbing and instructive tale”.
P. During the World War II (1939-45) he joined the Royal Navy and was present at the sinking of the Bismarck.
Q. He returned to teaching in 1945 and gave it up in 1952, and is now a full time writer.
R. In 1939, he married and started teaching at Bishop Wordsworth’s School in Salisbury.
S. At first his novels were not accepted.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) RPQS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRPQ
(d) SQPR
Q13. S1- Sunbirds are among the smallest of Indian birds.
S6- Our common sunbirds are the purple sunbird, the glossy black species and purple-rumped sunbird, the yellow and maroo species.
P. Though they are functionally similar to the hummingbirds of the New World, they are totally unrelated.
Q. They do eat small insects too.
R. They are also some of the most brilliantly-coloured birds.
S. Sunbirds feed on nectar mostly and help in pollination.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SQPR
(b) RPSQ
(c) QPRS
(d) PSRQ
Directions (14-15): Find the antonym of the given word and select the correct answer from the given answer choice.
Q14. Flowery
(a) decorated
(b) magical
(c) heavenly
(d) unadorned
Q15. Fecund
(a) sterile
(b) poor
(c) amateur
(d) debacle
Q1. According to the passage male lions generally do not go for hunting because
(a) they do not like it
(b) they want lioness to get training
(c) they wish to save their vigour for other things
(d) they are very lazy
Q2. When lionesses go in search for their prey, they are very
(a) serious
(b) cautious
(c) playful
(d) sluggish
Q3. Male lions protect their cubs
(a) from the members for their own species
(b) from hyenas only
(c) from hyenas as much from other enemies
(d) more from hyenas than from other animals
Q4. Lionesses go for hunting
(a) all alone
(b) with their male partners only
(c) with their cubs and male partners
(d) with their cubs only
Directions (5-8): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.
Harold, a professional man who had worked in an office for many years, had a fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a land where small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people’s bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after many years they grew into elephants which then became the nation’s system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted to go. Harold suddenly realized that he himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of pictures his dream dramatized for Harold what he had never been able to put into words; he saw himself as letting society feed on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the ‘security bug’ and took up freelance work.
Q5. The statement that ‘he later threw off the security bug’ means that
(a) Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security.
(b) Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams.
(c) Harold started tolerating social victimization.
(d) Harold killed all the bugs troubling him.
Q6. Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of ‘loathsome creatures’?
(a) security bug and slimy tentacles
(b) fearful dream and slug-like animals
(c) slimy tentacles and slug-like animals
(d) slug-like animals and security bug
Q7. In his dream, Harold found the loathsome creatures
(a) in his village
(b) in his own house
(c) in a different land
(d) in his office
Q8. Harold’s dream was fearful because
(a) It brought him face to face with reality
(b) It was full of vivid pictures of snakes
(c) He saw huge elephants in it
(d) In it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people’s bodies
Directions (9-13): Each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper order for four sentences.
Q9. S1- Our ancestors thought that anything which moved itself was alive.
S6- Therefore, some scientists think that life is just a very complicated mechanism.
P. The philosopher Descartes thought that both men and animals were machines.
Q. But a machine such as a motorcar or a steamship moves itself, and as soon as machines which moved themselves had been made, people asked, “Is man a machine?”
R. And before the days of machinery that was a good definition.
S. He also thought that the human machine was partly controlled by the soul action on a certain part of the brain, while animals had no souls.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PRSQ
(b) RPQS
(c) PSQR
(d) RQPS
Q10. S1- On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend and I sat down at a street café.
S6- Finally, a man walked over to me and whispered. “Hey buddy….. they guy’s your waiter and he wants your order.”
P. At one point, he bent over with a big smile, showing me a single good tooth and a dingy fez.
Q. Soon I felt the presence of someone standing alongside me.
R. But this one wouldn’t budge.
S. We had been cautioned about beggars and were told to ignore them.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SQRP
(b) SQPR
(c) QSRP
(d) QSPR
Q11. S1- The heart is the pump of life.
S6- All this was made possible by the invention of the heart-lung machine.
P. They have been succeeded in heart transplants.
Q. Now a day, surgeons are able to stop a patient’s heart and carry out complicated operation.
R. A few years ago it was impossible to operate on a patient whose heart was not working properly.
S. If the heart stops we die in about five minutes.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SRQP
(b) SPRQ
(c) SQPR
(d) SRPQ
Q12. S1- In 1934, William Golding published a small volume of poems.
S6- But ‘Lord of the Flies’ which came out in 1954 was welcomed as “a most absorbing and instructive tale”.
P. During the World War II (1939-45) he joined the Royal Navy and was present at the sinking of the Bismarck.
Q. He returned to teaching in 1945 and gave it up in 1952, and is now a full time writer.
R. In 1939, he married and started teaching at Bishop Wordsworth’s School in Salisbury.
S. At first his novels were not accepted.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) RPQS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRPQ
(d) SQPR
Q13. S1- Sunbirds are among the smallest of Indian birds.
S6- Our common sunbirds are the purple sunbird, the glossy black species and purple-rumped sunbird, the yellow and maroo species.
P. Though they are functionally similar to the hummingbirds of the New World, they are totally unrelated.
Q. They do eat small insects too.
R. They are also some of the most brilliantly-coloured birds.
S. Sunbirds feed on nectar mostly and help in pollination.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SQPR
(b) RPSQ
(c) QPRS
(d) PSRQ
Directions (14-15): Find the antonym of the given word and select the correct answer from the given answer choice.
Q14. Flowery
(a) decorated
(b) magical
(c) heavenly
(d) unadorned
Q15. Fecund
(a) sterile
(b) poor
(c) amateur
(d) debacle
Solutions
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. they wish to save their vigour for other things
S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. When lionesses go in search for their prey, they are very cautious.
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. more from hyenas than from other animals
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. with their cubs and male partners
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security.
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. slimy tentacles and slug-like animals
S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. In his dream, Harold found the loathsome creatures in a different land.
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. In it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people’s bodies
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. PSQR is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. QSRP- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. SRQP- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. RPQS- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. SQPR- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. unadorned- not decorated or fancy: not adorned
S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. Fecund - producing or able to produce many babies, young animals, or plants
sterile- not able to produce children, young animals, etc.
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. they wish to save their vigour for other things
S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. When lionesses go in search for their prey, they are very cautious.
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. more from hyenas than from other animals
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. with their cubs and male partners
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for security.
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. slimy tentacles and slug-like animals
S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. In his dream, Harold found the loathsome creatures in a different land.
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. In it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people’s bodies
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. PSQR is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. QSRP- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. SRQP- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. RPQS- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. SQPR- is the correct order of the sentences in most logical way.
S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. unadorned- not decorated or fancy: not adorned
S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. Fecund - producing or able to produce many babies, young animals, or plants
sterile- not able to produce children, young animals, etc.
SSC MTS Syllabus & Exam Pattern
Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS) employees are the Group C central government employees that are hired through special SSC exam. The MTS Employees are very important part of the bureaucracy, especially when it comes to performing the daily operations of different departments. MTS Employees are hired in CCAS cadre (Central Civil Accounts Service) of the Group C and are offered promotions within this group on the basis of seniority.
SSC MTS (Multi-Tasking Staff) Exam will be conducted in ONLINE Mode from 16th September to 26th October 2017 by the Staff Selection Commission. Earlier it was conducted in Offline mode but the exam got cancelled for some reason. In this article, we are providing the Exam pattern of MTS and syllabus, so that you can prepare according to syllabus and score well.
SSC MTS 2017 Exam Dates: 16.09.2017 to 26.10.2017
The written exam will consist of two papers i.e.: As per the scheme of the SSC MTS examination, there shall be two papers viz. Paper – I and Paper – II.
Paper-I (ONLINE)
Subject No. Of Questions Maximum Marks Total Duration/ Timing
General Intelligence & Reasoning 25 25
2 Hours Numerical Aptitude 25 25
General English 50 50
General Awareness 50 50
Total 150 150
Some Important points about the exam:
Paper- I will be objective type(Multiple Choice Questions).
The questions will be set both in English & Hindi.
There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.
The timing for Visually handicapped cerebral palsy candidates is 2 Hours 40 Mins.
Paper 2
Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the examination will be required to appear for a descriptive type qualifying paper for testing basic language skills. The date of descriptive paper will be intimated in due course.
Subject Maximum Marks Total Duration/ Timing
Short Essay /Letter in English or any language included in the 8 th schedule of the Constitution. 50 30 Minutes
Some important points about the exam:
Paper- II will be descriptive in nature.
Timing for Visually handicapped cerebral palsy candidates is 45 Minutes
This exam is qualifying in nature.
It is intended to test the elementary language skills of the candidates to be suitable for the post.
General Intelligence & Reasoning:
The test will include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.
S. No. Topics No. Of Questions Total Marks
1 Number & Alphabetical Series
25 Questions 25 Marks 2 Coding Decoding
3 Analogy
4 Odd one Out
5 Syllogism
6 Directions Sense
7 Ranking
8 Non-verbal: Paper Folding & Cutting, Mirror Image, Embedded or Complete the Image, Counting Figure
9 Blood relations
10 Matrix
11 Mathematical Calculations
12 Words order according to dictionary
English Language:
Candidates' understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested.
S.No. Topics Number of Questions Total Marks
1 Spot the error
50 Questions 50 Marks 2 Fill in the blanks
3 Synonyms
4 Antonyms
5 Spelling/detecting mis-spelt words
6 Idioms & Phrases,
7 One word substitution
8 Improvement of sentences
9 Comprehension Passage
Numerical Aptitude:
S.No. Topic No. of Questions Total Marks
1 Number System/HCF/LCM
25 Questions 25 Marks 2 Percentage, Average
3 Time & Work
4 Profit & Loss
5 Ratio, Mixture & Alligation
6 Time Speed Distance
7 CI & SI
8 Geometry
9 Mensuration
10 Trigonometry
11 DI
12 Algebra
SSC MTS (Multi-Tasking Staff) Exam will be conducted in ONLINE Mode from 16th September to 26th October 2017 by the Staff Selection Commission. Earlier it was conducted in Offline mode but the exam got cancelled for some reason. In this article, we are providing the Exam pattern of MTS and syllabus, so that you can prepare according to syllabus and score well.
SSC MTS 2017 Exam Dates: 16.09.2017 to 26.10.2017
The written exam will consist of two papers i.e.: As per the scheme of the SSC MTS examination, there shall be two papers viz. Paper – I and Paper – II.
Paper-I (ONLINE)
Subject No. Of Questions Maximum Marks Total Duration/ Timing
General Intelligence & Reasoning 25 25
2 Hours Numerical Aptitude 25 25
General English 50 50
General Awareness 50 50
Total 150 150
Some Important points about the exam:
Paper- I will be objective type(Multiple Choice Questions).
The questions will be set both in English & Hindi.
There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.
The timing for Visually handicapped cerebral palsy candidates is 2 Hours 40 Mins.
Paper 2
Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the examination will be required to appear for a descriptive type qualifying paper for testing basic language skills. The date of descriptive paper will be intimated in due course.
Subject Maximum Marks Total Duration/ Timing
Short Essay /Letter in English or any language included in the 8 th schedule of the Constitution. 50 30 Minutes
Some important points about the exam:
Paper- II will be descriptive in nature.
Timing for Visually handicapped cerebral palsy candidates is 45 Minutes
This exam is qualifying in nature.
It is intended to test the elementary language skills of the candidates to be suitable for the post.
General Intelligence & Reasoning:
The test will include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.
S. No. Topics No. Of Questions Total Marks
1 Number & Alphabetical Series
25 Questions 25 Marks 2 Coding Decoding
3 Analogy
4 Odd one Out
5 Syllogism
6 Directions Sense
7 Ranking
8 Non-verbal: Paper Folding & Cutting, Mirror Image, Embedded or Complete the Image, Counting Figure
9 Blood relations
10 Matrix
11 Mathematical Calculations
12 Words order according to dictionary
English Language:
Candidates' understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested.
S.No. Topics Number of Questions Total Marks
1 Spot the error
50 Questions 50 Marks 2 Fill in the blanks
3 Synonyms
4 Antonyms
5 Spelling/detecting mis-spelt words
6 Idioms & Phrases,
7 One word substitution
8 Improvement of sentences
9 Comprehension Passage
Numerical Aptitude:
S.No. Topic No. of Questions Total Marks
1 Number System/HCF/LCM
25 Questions 25 Marks 2 Percentage, Average
3 Time & Work
4 Profit & Loss
5 Ratio, Mixture & Alligation
6 Time Speed Distance
7 CI & SI
8 Geometry
9 Mensuration
10 Trigonometry
11 DI
12 Algebra
General Awareness:
Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline.
No. Of Questions: 50
Total Marks: 50
No. Of Questions: 50
Total Marks: 50
SSC CGL Tier-I Result Date Announced
SSC (Staff Selection Commission) has declared the Result Dates for FINAL SI / CPO Examination, 2016 and Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) Examination-2015 Exam. And also released the result date of tier-I result dates of Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2017 and SI / CPO Examination, 2017.
You have all been waiting for long for this good news, now you can check your result date in the below-given table:-
Final Result Date:
Final Result Date:
SI / CPO Examination, 2016 08th September 2017
Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) Examination-2015 16th October 2017
Paper- I or Tier-I Result Date:
Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2017 (Tier-I) 31st October 2017
SI / CPO Examination, 2017(Paper-I) 09th September 2017
Paper- II or Tier-II Result Date:
Junior Hindi Translators, Junior Translators, Senior Hindi Translator and Hindi Pradhyapak Examination-2017 (Paper-II) 29th September 2017
Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level Examination, 2016 (Tier-II) 25th October 2017
Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Quantity Surveying and Contract) Examination-2016(Paper-II) 30th November 2017
Note: Process of result finalisation of SSC CPO 2015 would start after the receipt of the Court Order.
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